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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

13.06.2025 09:53

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

So I’m getting piano lessons and my teacher wants me to get an upright piano instead of a keyboard. An upright piano is way above my price range, so what do I do? And what’s the difference between an upright piano and a keyboard?

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

Has anyone had a romance scammer start messaging them on Quora? How do you know if the person is scamming you? What do you do?

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

You'll usually find your answer there.

Why is digital marketing important?

There's no rule.

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